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070 EASA FCL’s learning objectives.
Here were the official documents regarding JARs (to be updated with the latest EASA LOs):
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During an ILS procedure, if the information transmittednby the appropriate services and received by the crewncontains parameters below the crew’s operationalnminimums, the point beyond which the approach mustnnot be continued is:
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first actionnto take is to :
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected tonwindshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absencenof a pilot action, the aircraft :1. flies above the glide path 2. flies below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeednThe combination of correct statements is :
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted innaccordance with IFR when:
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with windncoming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenevernpossible :
The term decision height (DH) is used for :
Products or materials are considered to be dangerousngoods if the products or materials in question arendefined as such by:
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraftnthat is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :
On a polar stereographic chart where the earthnconvergence between 2 points located on the paralleln60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-trackndifference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :
The information to consider for a standard straight-innapproach is :1 – the horizontal visibilityn2 – the ceilingn3 – the minimum descending altitude (MDA)n4 – the decision altitude (DA)nWhich of the following combinations contains all of thencorrect statements?
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measuresnfor the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraftnwhich is subjected to an act of unlawful interferencenuntil their journey can be continued ? The :
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
Who has the responsibility for establishing operatingnprocedures for noise abatement purposes duringninstrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPSnthe :
When an aircraft, having already undergone an antiicingnprocedure, must be protected again:
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system bencapable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precisenclimb and discontinued approach requirements :
An operator must ensure that for the duration of eachnflight, be kept on the ground, if required:
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informsnyou about the presence of a “microburst””. You willnexpect to encounter:
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpitnvoice recorder must keep the conversations and soundnalarms recorded during the last :
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operatingnconditions must take the following into account :1. equipment available for navigation 2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. composition of the flight crew 4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missednapproach areas 5. facilities for determining and communicating thenweather conditionsnThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis :
For a given aircraft and runway contamination,nincreased pressure altitude will:
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notifiednspecial routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraftnmust be equipped with at least:
The wake turbulence is the most severe when thenaircraft is :1. slow 2. heavy 3. in a clean configuration 4. flying with a high thrustnThe combination of correct statement is:
The flight deck door should be capable of being :
After a landing, with overweight and overspeednconditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. Thenfireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
Following an emergency landing which will need annescape from the aircraft, you will:1 – remain on the runway,n2 – clear the runway using the first available taxiway,n3 – keep one engine or the APU running in order tonmaintain the electrical power supply on,n4 – turn off all systems.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) definesnthe equipment on which certain in-flight failures can benallowed and the conditions under which this allowancencan be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradarnseparation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :
In the event of communication failure in an MNPSn(Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)nairspace, the pilot must:
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradarnseparation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flightninduces an increase in the:
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approachnwhich may be carried out with a runway visual range ofnat least :
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization)nAppendix 18 is a document dealing with :
According to the recommended “noise abatement takeoffnand climb procedure A”” established in ICAO
The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8
nbars. The speed at which the hydroplaning phenomenon
nwill appear is approximately:
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board annaircraft flying away from the shore by more than :
In the absence of wind and without the astronomicnprecession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyronheading, follow a :
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable toncontinue flight in accordance with its air traffic controlnclearance (due to degradation of navigationalnperformance requirements), but is able to maintain itsnassigned level,and due to a total loss ofncommunications capability, could not obtain a revisednclearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave itsnassigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) tonthe right or left whenever this is possible, and thensubsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintainnin either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NMnfrom its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descendn500 ft, if :
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the firstnto change its value when penetrating a windshear ?
Wind shear is:
In the hazardous materials transportation act, thenfreight compliance with the regulatory arrangements isnthe responsibility of the :
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is anrisk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.n2- speed is greater than 132 kt.n3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of thentyre grooves.n4- speed is greater than 117 kt.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
The general information, instructions andnrecommendations on the transport of hazardousnmaterials are specified in the :
The authorization for the transport of hazardousnmaterials is specified on the:
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, thendifferential pressure :
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:1- class A firesn2- class B firesn3- electrical source firesn4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicalsnWhich of the following combinations contains all of thencorrect statements?
Posit :g, the longitude differencenLm, the average latitudenLo, the latitude of the tangentnThe transport precession is equal to :
After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear withna decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action,nthe aircraft :1- flies above the climb-out pathn2- flies below the climb-out pathn3- has an increasing true airspeedn4- has a decreasing true airspeednThe combination of correct statements is :
The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) isndrawn up by :
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper firen 2. a fabric firen 3. an electric firen 4. a wood firen 5. a hydrocarbon fire The combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojetnengined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimumnquantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :
A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight datanrecorder when its certified take-off gross weight isngreater than :
According with the “noise abatement take-off and climb procedure “
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 – solids (fabric, plastic, …)n2 – liquids (alcohol, gasoline, …)n3 – gasn4 – metals (aluminium, magnesium, …)nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5naircraft categories according to their speed at thenthreshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal tonthe stalling speed in the landing configuration at thenmaximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factornof:
The validity period of a flight track system organized innMNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)nairspace during a Westbound flight normally is :
The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III Bnoperations, is a precision instrument approach andnlanding using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lowernthan 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visualnrange lower than 200 m but no less than :
In icing conditions and after the application of an antiicingnfluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-offnby:1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash ofnthe preceding aircraft 2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props washnof the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of thenpreceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of thenpreceding aircraftnThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical firenThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradarnseparation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :
Astronomic precession is :
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 fornsome considerable time a small leak develops in thencabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can benseen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which willnindicate :
The standby power supply powering the standbynartificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraftnof more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers duringnat least :
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on classnB fires are:1 – H2On2 – CO2n3 – dry-chemicaln4 – halogennWhich of the following combinations contains all of thencorrect statements?
From the following list : 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen suppliesn 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beveragesnWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that arenrequired to be on the aeroplane in accordance withnrelevant JAR’s for operating reasons :
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of thisnfacility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stopnlanding from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,ndry runway) within:
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning dependsnprimarily on the
Following an explosive decompression, the maximumnaltitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is notnimpaired is :
You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point Bn(60°N 020°E).nThe gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to benoperating perfectly, with no rate correction device, isnaligned with the true North of point A.nThe constant gyro heading to be followed when startingnfrom A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 minnwith a zero wind, is equal to :
On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet enginednaircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel andnlubricant sufficient for flying during :
When a course is plotted at minimum time route, onenpasses from the air isochrone to the correspondingnground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot)na vector KK’ which is equal to:
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected tonwindshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence ofna pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide pathn2- flies below the gilde pathn3- has an increasing true airspeedn4- has a decreasing true airspeednThe combination of correct statements is :
You are the captain of a commercial airplane and younnotice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may presentna bird strike hazard, you must:
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected tonwindshear with an increasing head wind.In the absencenof a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide pathn2- flies below theglide pathn3- has an increasing true airspeedn4- has a decreasing true airspeednThe combination of correct statements is :
If airworthiness documents do not shown anynadditionnal correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:
On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate annaeroplane at a distance away from land, which isnsuitable for making a emergency landing greater thannthat corresponding to :
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking offnaircraft:
A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approachnfollowed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontalnvisibility is higher than or equal to:
The captain is asked by the authority to present thendocuments of the aircraft. He
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedurenand having exceeded the protection time of the antiicingnfluid:
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to controlnvibrations a landing must be made immediately.nFollowing this incident the pilot :
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen tonbe supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots itnshall be available for the entire flight time that the cabinnpressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. Thatnminimum of X feet is :
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) isnestablished by:
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transportnprecession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro Northnwith respect to the:
An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safenapproach, it is necessary to :
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway isncovered with a thin film of water and:
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane atntake-off:
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length ofnone of the organised tracks, the intended organisedntrack should be defined in items of the FPL by :
At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertialnsystems of an aircraft flying on the LONDONANCHORAGEnline occurs in the geographic North polenregion. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this momentnis 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue thenflight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failurenis :OTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polarnstereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zeronmeridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographicnNorth pole.
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1. you increase your approach speed, 2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of thenwheels with the runway and immediately land your nosengear, 3. you decrease your approach speed, 4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices, 5. you land as smoothly as possible, 6. you brake energically.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis :
Astronomic precession :
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep theirnsafety belt fastened:
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabinnsmoke is:
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what isnthe ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavynaeroplane is following directly behind another heavynaeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures,nwhich letter should be entered into a flight plan tondenote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg :
The frequency designated for VHF air to airncommunications when out of range of VHF groundnstations in NAT region is :
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
According to the recommended noise abatementnprocedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume Inpart V, data available indicates that the procedure whichnresults in noise relief during the part of the procedurenclose to the airport :
An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum ofneight occupants (including pilot).nThe pilot has a passenger load of six adults and twonchildren (5 and 6 years old).nThe boarding of all passengers is:
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:1. a water fire-extinguisher 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. a halon fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguishernThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulencenappear as soon as the following is established :
If you encounter a “microburst” just after taking-off
Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment fornfire fighting is on board:
A water fire extinguisher can be used without restrictionnfor:1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood firenThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
An operator must ensure that, for the duration of eachnflight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :
90 % of bird strikes occur :
During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that anpassenger is using a portable device suspected tondisburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:
The “NO SMOKING” sign must be illuminated :
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chartnprecession is a rotation in degrees, for a movingnaircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :
Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting ancertain amount of information. The operator will see thatnthis file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly: 1 – the weather conditions for the day including thenweather forecast at destination,n2 – one copy of the operational flight plan and, ifnrequired, the weight and balance sheet,n3 – copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft’s materielnreport,n4 – the en-route NOTAM documentation whennspecifically issued by the operator,n5 – notification for special loadings,n6 – for each flight, details of the day’s performances andnlimitations with completed charts.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at annaltitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by thenoperating crew ?
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (MinimumnNavigation Performance Specification) airspace, younexpect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; younwill then normally be ;
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (MinimumnNavigation Performance Specification) airspace, younexpect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC ; you willnnormally be :
When the weather conditions require an alternatenaerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall benlocated, for aircraft with three or more engines, at annequivalent distance not exceeding :
Astronomic precession :
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there isna risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.n2- speed is greater than 104 kt.n3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of thentyre grooves.n4- speed is greater than 96 kt.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statements i :
In the “worst case” scenario of recovery from the effectsnof a microburst
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPSnAirspace is unable to continue flight in accordance withnits air traffic control clearance (degradation ofnnavigational performance requirements, mechanicsntroubles… etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level,nand due to a total loss of communications capability,ncould not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. Thenaircraft should leave its assigned route or track bynturning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever thisnis possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn tonacquire and maintain in either direction track laterallynseparated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :
When the weather conditions require an alternatenaerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall benlocated, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalentndistance not exceeding :
A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is annapproach with :
A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her checked luggagenThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is annapproach which may be carried out with a runway visualnrange of at least :
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of thenpassengers must be supplied with oxygen throughoutnthe period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during whichnthe pressure altitude is between :
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplanenfails while you are still parked. The reference documentnyou use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
The braking efficiency is a piece of informationnpresenting itself in the form of a :
The minimum flight crew for night transport ofnpassengers or according to the Instrument flight rules isn:
The minimum navigation equipment required for annaircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace cannbe at the very least :
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (MinimumnNavigation Performance Spécification) airspace, younexpect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC ; you willnnormally be :
Wake turbulence risk is highest :
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensurenthat a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-incommandnunless :
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipmentnwhich can be inoperative when undertaking a flight andnthe additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly.nThis list is prepared by:
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure innan MNPS (Minimum Navigation PerformancenSpecification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequencynfor air-air communications is :
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is thenICAO minimum radar separation time if a lightnaeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a mediumnaeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg)non the approach to landing ?
According to the JAR OPS, when a commercialntransport passenger airplane is equipped with a door innthe flight crew compartment area, this door mustninclude:
With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an InertialnNavigation System (INS), you can read the followingninformation :- Desired track (DTK) = 100°n- Track (TK) = 120°nYou can conclude that the :
The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned tonoperate at the flight controls during take-off and landingnunless :
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulencenradar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall benapplied when a :
An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPSnAirspace is unable to continue flight in accordance withnits air traffic control clearance (degradation ofnnavigational performance requirements, mechanicsntroubles …. etc), but is able to maintain its assignednlevel (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communicationsncapability, could not obtain a revised clearance fromnATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route orntrack by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or leftnwhenever this is possible, and the subsequent actionnwill be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction antrack laterally separated by 30 NM from its assignednroute and :
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flightnwith no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if thenminimum weather conditions stipulated in thenregulations are effective for at least :
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, younwill:1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuatingnthe stick shaker 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. keep the airplane’s current configuration 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag rationThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected tonwindshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence ofna pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide pathn2- flies below the glide pathn3- has an increasing true airspeedn4- has a decreasing true airspeednthe combination of correct statements is :
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approachnwith :
The JAR-OPS is based on :
At which levels may Reduced Vertical SeparationnMinimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (MinimumnNavigation Performance Specification) airspace over thenNorth Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanicnclearance, the crew :
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for andomestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
The touch down areas located at both ends of thenrunways are typical for the appearance of:
The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with ancruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by ansingle pilot.nThe usable runway has edge lights, high intensitynrunway centre lights and RVR readings for thresholdnmid and end of runway.nThe approach minimums for runway 06 are :DH = 300 feet,nHorizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.nThe weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV)n900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.nIs take-off possible?
In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flightnmanual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when donthe regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departureninspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correctnaction is to :
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygennmasks are compulsory on board any pressurizednaircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is annapproach which may be carried out with a runway visualnrange of at least :
For stable clouds:1- the most favourable temperatures for icing arenbetween 0°C and -10°Cn2- the most favourable temperatures for icing arenbetween 0°C and -15°Cn3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°Cn4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°Cn5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 andn0.03mmn6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 andn0.2mmnWhich of the following combinations contains all thencorrect statements?
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gustnor strong down wind which forces you to go around. You 1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear andnflaps)n2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)n3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering ofnstick shakern4- avoid excessive attitude changenThe combination of correct statements is :
If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft arenunserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and ifnyou cannot establish communication with the air trafficncontrol, you :
JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishesnthat, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :
The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 – the trainingn2 – the test resultsn3 – a log of flying hoursn4 – a summary of the training by reference periodnWhich of the following combinations contains all of thencorrect answers?
The system which must be switched off in case of anbelly compartment fire is generally the :
The safety position for adults looks like: seat beltsnfastened,
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there isna risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.n2- speed is greater than 123 kt.n3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of thentyre grooves.n4- speed is greater than 95 kt.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if annaeroplane’s mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., thenapproximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaningnmay occur in the event of applying brakes is :
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on anSNOWTAM is :
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirednrecent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilotnoperation under IFR or at night shall be :
Which of the following requirements should be metnwhen planning a flight with icing conditions:
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedurenbeing carried out will vary considerbly depending on thenambient temperature and the weather conditions. For angiven ambient temperature, the longest protection willnbe in weather conditions of :
A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approachnfollowed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontalnvisibility is higher than or equal to :
In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polarnstereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallelnwith the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction ofngeographic North along this meridian.nThe aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°,nthe grid route at this moment is :
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping ofnaircraft types into three categories according to thenmaximum certificated take-off mass.nHeavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitudenwill have :
What transponder code should be used to providenrecognition of an aircraft which is being subjected tonunlawful interference :
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain ofna transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase innthe indicated airspeed without any change in thenpreselected engine and attitude parameters. Thenpreceding crews had reported the occurrence ofnwindshears in final phase. you must :
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit,nseeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, willnfirst see the :
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid isnparallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in thendirection of the North geographic pole.nIn polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyronmode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the gridnheading controlled by information from the inertialnnavigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching ton”magnetic mode”
According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twinenginednaircraft with a maximum certificated take-offnmass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approvednseating configuration of more than 19 passagers mustnbe planned in such a way that on one engine annappropriate aerodrome can be reached within :
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens arenknown to be on board an aircraft, the State of thencountry in which an aircraft has landed after an act ofnunlawful interference must immediately notify the :
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation PerformancenSpecification) airspace extends from :
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima – General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full accountnof Aeroplane Categories.nThe criteria taken into consideration for classification ofnAeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed atnthreshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed atnthe maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.nCorresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :
The regulatory green navigation light is located on thenstarboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :
When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUMnaircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum timenapproach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO),nshall be :
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with anleading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinalnspacing must be at least :
The time of useful consciousness in case of annexplosive decompression at an altitude ofn40 000 ft is:
The information concerning dangerous products thatnpassengers may carry, are listed in the :
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements:1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungsnThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight: 1 – class A fires 2 – class B fires 3 – electrical source fires 4 – special fires: metals, gas, chemical productnWhich of the following combinations contains all thencorrect statements:
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approachnfollowed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontalnvisibility is higher than or equal to :
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wingncontamination by ice or frost will cause the followingneffects:1 – an increase in the take-off distancen2 – a diminution of the take-off runn3 – an increase in the stalling speedn4 – a diminution of the stalling speedn5 – a diminution of the climb gradientnThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis :
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting innthe travelling direction, in case of an emergency landingnare:1. legs together and feet flat on the floor, 2. head resting against the back of the front seat. 3. forearms on the armrests, 4. seat belt very tightly fastened, 5. head resting on the forearms.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, younfight the fire using:1. a dry powder fire extinguisher 2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximumnThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation PerformancenSpecification) airspace extends vertically between flightnlevels:
In the event of a contingency which required an en-routendiversion to an alternate aerodrome across the directionnof the prevailing “NAT”” traffic flow and if prior ATCnclearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able tonmaintain its assigned flight level should:
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (MinimumnNavigation Performance Specification) airspace, younexpect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; younwill then normally be :
The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edgenlights and high intensity centre line lights. There is annaccessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew isnIFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibilitynrequired for take-off is:
Your flight manual does not include specificnsupplementary information on landing distances on wetnrunways and the service bulletins or weather reportsnindicate that the runway may be wet at the estimatedntime of arrival. The required landing distance on a drynrunway must be increased by:
Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
The observations and studies conducted on thenbehavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraftntaking off and having reached an average speed of 135nkt, show that birds fly away :
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPRnindications will be:
The minimum equipment list of a public transportnairplane is to be found in the :
Which errors in “estimates” minutes shall be reportednby aircraft overflying the North Atlantic?
The most efficient bird scaring technique generallynavailable is :
In the event of a contingency which required an en-routendiversion to an alternate aerodrome across the directionnof the prevailing “NAT”” traffic flow and if prior ATCnclearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able tonmaintain its assigned flight level should:
At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with anrelative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fognand precipitation, serious carburettor icing :
In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :
When refueling is being performed while passengers arenboarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessarynthat: (Annex 6, Part I)
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUMnand a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, ornparallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (innapproach or departure phases of flight), shall be appliedna wake turbulence radar separation minima of :
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained betweennaircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :
The ascent or descent through MNPS (MinimumnNavigation Performance Specification) airspace of a nonnMNPS certified aircraft is :
The reference document dealing with air transport ofnhazardous materials is :
The validity period of a “certificate of airworthiness”nvaries with the conditions under which the aircraft isnmaintained.nIf the maintenance is carried out according to annapproved programme and done in a maintenance shopnapproved by the Minister of Civil Aviation
Which separation will be provided if Reduced VerticalnSeparation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating innMNPS airspace?
Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor innthe designation of a runway, under the followingncircumstances :1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust,nexceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis :
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what isnthe minimum separation time that is permitted when anlight aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from annintermediate part of the same runway ?
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :1. evacuate women and children first. 2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts. 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede thenairplane’s flotation ability. 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.nThe combination regrouping all the correct statementsnis:
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipmentnduring a transatlantic flight using the OTS (OrganisednTrack System) must be done :
The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a nonprecisionndirect IFR approach with the followingnoperational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750nmetres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runwaynare given by the controller…
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuelnjettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weightnin an emergency :
In addition to the languages required by the State ofnOrigin, what language should be set for the markingsnrelated to dangerous goods :