010-Air law & ATC procedures

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40kt or more, faster than the succeeding aircraft, will be:

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjonction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?

A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approches are being conducted:

Separation methods and minima – ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION.
Essential traffic is:

Light signals for aerodrome traffic:
A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means:

ICAO Annexes to the Chicago Convention – Annex 9.
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:

Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person of thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:

Longitudinal separation minima – based on time.
The minimum longitudinal separation between two aircraft flying on the same track, the preceding one maintaining a true airspeed of 74km/h (40 kt) faster than the succeeding aircraft, departed from the same aerodrome or having reported exactly over the same significant point, is:

Interception.
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepted aircraft of with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency

SSR – Transponder:
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:

ATIS – Updating.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated:

ICAO Annex 7 – Nationality and registration.
Certain letter combinations shall not be used in registration marks. Which of the following combinations might be confused with an urgent or distress signal?

Minimum level IFR.
When not flying over high terrain or montainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flight in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least:

Final approach segment:
During a precision approach (ILS), glide path interception occurs normally at heights above runway elevation between:

Visual Aids for Navigation:
A Runway-lead-in lighting system should consist of:

Longitudinal Separation Minima.
Mach Number Technique based on RNNAV Distance.

When the Mach number separation technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft maintains a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft, a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum.
The distance is:

You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?

Visual aids for navigation – Lights.
Which is the principal composition of a precision approach category I lighting system?

Declared Distances “ASDA” (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

Interception.
If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:

Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:

According tp JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:

Approach Control Service.
An Expected Approach Time (EAT) will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft when it is expected that it has to hold:

According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to:

Holding Procedures – Entry.
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:

Longitudinal Separation:
The longitudinal separation minimum for 2 aircraft when both are utilizing the same “on track”” DME stations is:

ICAO Annex 14 – Visual aids for navigation – Lights

PAPI:
When is using the PAPI and the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope, the pilot will see the following lights:

According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:

Final approach segment:
ILS obstacle clearance surfaces are established under the assumption, that after being established on the track, the pilot does not deviate from the centreline by more than:

Signal from a signalman to an aircraft.
A signalman requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:

Which statement is correct?

High intensity obstacle lights should be:

ICAO Annex 2 – Definitions.
Who is charged with the safe conduct of a flight?

Light signals.
A red flare adressed to an aircraft in flight means:

Inadvertent changes from a Flight plan.
The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed:

Radar Services – Radar Separation Minima.
When radar capabilities at a given location so permit, the minimum radar separation of 5 NM may be reduced, but shall not be less than:

Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:

Circling approach.
One of the conditions to descent below MDA on a circling approach is:

Holding Procedures – Buffer Area.
How far beyond the holding area extends the buffer area?

Standard Instrument Departure Procedures – Straight Departures.
A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:

Air Traffic Service unit means:

Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

A Special Air Report comprises a number of number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:

One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:

Classification of Airspace – VFR
A VFR flight flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C at or above 3050m (10.000 ft) AMSL has to maintain the following minima:

Flight plan – Inadvertent track changes.
In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to:

When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals, for example:

Altimeter setting procedures – Transition Altitude.
The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:

Minimum and maximum age for ATPL holders.
According to ICAO Annex 1, the minimum / maximum age for the holder of an ATPL is:

A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:

Holding procedures (entry).
The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°.
You are approaching magnetic Track 232° (no wind).
Select the appropriate entry procedure:

Horizontal separation – Independent parallel approaches.
Such approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that the missed approach track for one approach diverges from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach by at least:

ICAO Annexes to the Chicago Convention.
The Annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes at least 1,500 hours of flight time, including

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:

Alerting Service:
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?

Separation methods and minima – essential traffic.
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:

Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 (‘Calvert’) type of approach light system?

Right of way / Avoidance of collisions.
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall

Alert phase is define as follows:

When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed,

Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible

If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome reports ‘field in sight’, a clearance for ‘visual approach’ may be given under certain conditions

ICAO Annex 12 – Search and RESCUE signals:
The ground-air visual code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “AFFIRMATIVE”” is:

Annex 17 – Security.
Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate authority arranges for the supporting resources and facilities required by the aviation security services to be available:

ICAO – Chicago Convention:
‘Standards’ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention are:

Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes – timed approaches.
A “Timed Approach Procedure” may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft.
This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to

Approach Procedures – Visual Flight Manoeuvre – Circling.
A circling approach is:

ATC procedures.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another unit is done:

Authority.
The final authority as the disposition of the aircraft has the:

Visual aids for denoting obstacles:
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

Runway threshold lights shall be:

Definitions – Visual Approach.
A so called “Visual Approach” can be performed:

Lower Limit of Controlled Airspace:
The lower limit of a Control area / CTA shall be established not less than:

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?

Annex 17 – Security:
Contracting States should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the disruptive passengers:

Holding procedures.
If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:

Information on holding, approach and departure procedures.
Which part of the AIP contains this information?

During radar control, a “radar controller” shall issue a missed approach instruction

Visual Flight Rules.
Above an altitude of 10 000 ft, flights operating withing airspace Class “G”” in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:

The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:

Urgency signals:
The crew of an aircraft uses the following signal in order to give notice of difficulties, which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance

Accident, incident notification and reporting.
After landing, while taxiing towards the apron, the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.

SSR special codes.
ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of losing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:

Altimeter setting procedures.
Within controlled airspace the cruising level for flights under IFR shall be given as flight level (FL)

Airspace Classification.
Flight information service provided to flights includes the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in the airspace of Class:

Visual aids for navigation – Runway threshold Lights.
The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be:

A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:

Indication of wind direction.
According to international agreements, wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic

The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:

JAR-FCL 1 – Minimum flight experience requirements for the IR.
The applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) including a night qualification or a CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:

Charactéristics of T-VASIS:
Each wing bar has:

If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach, a departing aircraft may take off in any direction

Communications Failure – Flight Procedures:
On a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, you are proceeding exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: “Turn immediately to heading 050 until further advised””. At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication can’t be reestablished:

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

Visual aids for navigation – Approach Lights.
The centre line crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system shall be fixed lights, showing variable intensity of the following colour:

When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course

International Air Transit Agreement.
The first freedom of the air, laid down in the International Air Transit Agreement is:

A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subjected to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights, VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flight is:

Radar Services – Precision Surveillance Radar:
At what distance from the end of the runway may a pilot expect that his aircraft can be identified on departure when ATC is equipped and using PSR?

Annex 17 – Security:
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as:

Visual Flight Rules.
An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least

Estimated Approach Time/ EAT:
A pilot receives an EAT as soon as practicable, when an expected approach delay is:

Visual Flight Rules.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR of Airspace Class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the:

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the iddue of a PPL

Under ICAO rules, the holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with no more than:

Separation methods and minima – vertical separation.
Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be:

Instrument Departure Procedure – Wind correction.
Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure, pilots are expected to:

Final approach segment:
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the

When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, than:

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:

Arrival and Approach segments – General.
What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?

Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?

During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:

Annex 2 Light signals for aerodrome traffic:
A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means:

ICAO Annex 1 – JAR-FCL1 – Cross Country flight time requirements for the ATPL.
As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours, the applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed not less than 200 hours of cross country flight time on aeroplanes.
How much of this shall be in pilot-in command time or co-pilot time under the supervision of the pilot in command, performing the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority?

Separation methods and minima – vertical separation.
The vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR, within controlled airspace, below FL 290 is:

Separation methods and minima – Vertical Separation Minima / VSM, acc DOC 4444.
The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR, within controlled airspace, above FL 290 is:

Deviation from Flight Plan.
Pilots of controlled flights are requested to inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average TAS at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by:

Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:

ICAO Annexes to the Chicago Convention.
The Annex that deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:

Holding procedures:
The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air condition is:

Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP?

Departure procedure – Design.
The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:

Aeronautical Information Service:
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:

General provisions – change from IFR to VFR.
A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space when

The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3,050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, is:

The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:

An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is:

“TODA” take-off distance available is:

A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:

Aeronautical Information Service:
ame the accronym signifying the system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating practices:

The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:

If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form…

An air traffic control unit:

A checklist of valid NOTAM shall be issued over the Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS) at intervals of not more than:

Minimum Radar Separation on final approach:
Provided there is no danger of wake turbulence, the minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localizer course shall be not less than:

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Licence requirements (ICAO/JAR-FCL):
Requirement for the issue of a PPL.

An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ….. hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ….. hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively

Classification of Airspace – Speed limitation VFR.
Below 3.050 m (10.000ft) AMSL, inside ATS airspace classified as C, the speed limitation for VFR flights if:

Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:

The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

Altimeted setting procedures – Transition Level:
With altimeter setting of 1013.2 hPa, the vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level has to be reported:

Approach procedures – Arrival and Approach Segments – Intermediate approach segment.
What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

International Air Transit Agreement.
The second freedom of the air, as defined in the International Air Transit Agreement is the right for non-scheduled flights to:

Holding procedures – Offset Entry.
Above 14000ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:

Approach procedures – Minimum Sector Altitude / MSA.
Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome.
How many NM is the radius of this circle?

Clearance on Final Approach.
A pilot may expect to receice the clearance to land or any alternative clearance before the aircraft reaches a distance of:

Visual Aids for Navigation.
Runway-lead-in lighting shall consist:

ICAO Annex 7 – Nationality and registration.
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by the:

SSR – Transponder.
When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:

Inadvertent changes from Flight plan:
In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the approapriate ATS unit has to be informed:

Search and Rescue signals.
The ground – air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate “REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE”” is:

When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: “fly heading 030”

Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initiation of an accident investigation?

ICAO Annex 7 – Nationality and registration.
When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the:

ICAO Annex 1 / JAR FCL1.
When a Contracting State renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:

The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating to Damage caused by Aircraft was established in order to define the liability in case of damage:

Approach procedures – Instrument Approach Area.
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:

The pilot in command of an aircraft:
1 – must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2 – is responsible only if he is the “pilot flying””
3 – may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 – may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5 – may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

JAR-FCL 3 – Validity of the medical assessment.
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin at the date:

At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft.
The mean tail-wind component significant change is?

ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:

Longitudinal Separation:
The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt faster or more than the succeeding aircraft, is:

The loading limitations shall include:

ICAO Annexes to the Chicago Convention – Annex 9.
Subject to technological possibilities documents for entry and departure of aircraft

Radar services – Radar Separation – Minima.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:

ICAO Annex 13 – Accident / Incident notification and reporting:
The aircraft has made a complete stop on the apron. When leaving the aircra